PMI-RMP · Question #483
PMI-RMP Question #483: Real Exam Question with Answer & Explanation
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Question
A two-year project with a budget of US$2 million has completed about 60% of the work at the end of the first year. The actual cost incurred to complete the remaining 40% of work is about USS1.5 million. As a part of performing a specialized risk analysis, the calculated schedule performance index (SPI) is 1.2 and cost performance index (CPI) is 0.5. How should the risk manager interpret such a low CPI value?
Options
- AThe cost control processes is ineffective.
- BThe cost baseline is inaccurate.
- CThe actual reported costs are inaccurate.
- DThe cost related risks are effectively managed.
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