nerdexam
PMIPMI

PMI-RMP · Question #483

PMI-RMP Question #483: Real Exam Question with Answer & Explanation

Sign in or unlock PMI-RMP to reveal the answer and full explanation for question #483. The question stem and answer options stay visible for context.

Perform Targeted Risk Analysis

Question

A two-year project with a budget of US$2 million has completed about 60% of the work at the end of the first year. The actual cost incurred to complete the remaining 40% of work is about USS1.5 million. As a part of performing a specialized risk analysis, the calculated schedule performance index (SPI) is 1.2 and cost performance index (CPI) is 0.5. How should the risk manager interpret such a low CPI value?

Options

  • AThe cost control processes is ineffective.
  • BThe cost baseline is inaccurate.
  • CThe actual reported costs are inaccurate.
  • DThe cost related risks are effectively managed.

Unlock PMI-RMP to see the answer

You've previewed enough free PMI-RMP questions. Unlock PMI-RMP for full answers, explanations, the timed quiz mode, progress tracking, and the master PDF. Question stem and options stay visible so you can still see what's on the exam.

Topics

#Cost Performance Index (CPI)#Earned Value Analysis (EVA)#Cost Baseline#Performance Measurement Interpretation
Full PMI-RMP PracticeBrowse All PMI-RMP Questions