The risk manager is about to go on medical leave, but before departing, conducts a risk response planning review meeting with stakeholders. A new risk manager is assigned to the project, and during…

Question

Options

• APerform a project review.
• BPerform a risk reserve analysis.
• CImplement an action plan to resolve the issue.
• DDelegate to the action owner.

• A
  8% (4)
• B
  71% (36)
• C
  4% (2)
• D
  18% (9)

Explanation

Option B is correct because when an issue is identified (a risk that has already materialized), the new risk manager must first perform a risk reserve analysis to determine whether contingency reserves are sufficient to fund the response - this is the foundational step before any corrective action can be funded or authorized.

Why the distractors are wrong:

• A (Project review): Too broad and unfocused - a full project review is not warranted simply because a single issue has emerged.
• C (Implement an action plan): Premature; you cannot responsibly commit to an action plan without first confirming the reserves exist to support it.
• D (Delegate to the action owner): Delegation is a management tactic, not a risk response step - and delegating before assessing reserve adequacy skips critical analysis.

Memory tip: Think of it this way - Issues cost money. Before you spend it, check if you have it. Whenever a risk materializes into an issue, your first move is to look at the reserve "wallet" (risk reserve analysis) before deciding how to act.

No community discussion yet for this question.