nerdexam
ExamsPK0-004Questions#592
CompTIA

PK0-004 · Question #592

PK0-004 Question #592: Real Exam Question with Answer & Explanation

The correct answer is D: Conduct an impact analysis to verify there is no collateral damage.. The team member bypassed the formal change control process by implementing a change without authorization. Even if the change appears logically sound, the project manager's first priority is to assess the impact of this unauthorized change on the rest of the project-schedule, bud

Question

A customer approaches a team member to report that old functionality is no longer valid due to technology restrictions. The team member has also noticed this during the execution of the project. The team member agrees with the new functionality provided by the customer, implements the change, and notifies the project manager. Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?

Options

  • ANotify the team that the change has been made.
  • BUpdate the project management plan based on the change.
  • CProceed to the next task in the project schedule.
  • DConduct an impact analysis to verify there is no collateral damage.

Explanation

The team member bypassed the formal change control process by implementing a change without authorization. Even if the change appears logically sound, the project manager's first priority is to assess the impact of this unauthorized change on the rest of the project-schedule, budget, resources, dependencies, and other deliverables. This is the impact analysis. Notifying the team (A) comes after the impact is understood. Updating the project management plan (B) is a downstream step that follows the impact analysis and formal change approval. Proceeding to the next task (C) ignores the risk that collateral damage may have already occurred. The PM must act immediately to contain potential ripple effects before taking any further action.

Community Discussion

No community discussion yet for this question.

Full PK0-004 Practice