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USMLE · Question #533
USMLE Question #533: Real Exam Question with Answer & Explanation
The correct answer is A. Androgen insensitivity. See the full explanation below for the reasoning.
Question
A 17-year-old girl has never had a menstrual period. Physical examination shows a normal female body habitus, normal breast development, and normal appearing external genitalia. She has no axillary or pubic hair. The patient refuses to have a pelvic or rectal examination. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the clinical presentation?
Options
- AAndrogen insensitivity
- BCongenital adrenal hyperplasia
- CEctodermal dysplasia
- DA psychiatric disorder
- EA sex chromosome mosaicism
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