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USMLE · Question #532

A previously healthy 40-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband because of a 2-day history of fever, lethargy, and confusion. Her temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse is…

The correct answer is C. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. See the full explanation below for the reasoning.

Question

A previously healthy 40-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband because of a 2-day history of fever, lethargy, and confusion. Her temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse is 80/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. Physical examination shows scattered petechiae and ecchymoses over the lower extremities. Neurologic examination shows moderate generalized motor weakness. She is oriented to person but not to place or time. Laboratory studies show:

A peripheral blood smear shows 3+ polychromasia and 3+ schistocytes. Urine and blood cultures grow no organisms. A chest x-ray shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Exhibit

USMLE question #532 exhibit

Options

  • AAcute myeloid leukemia
  • BAutoimmune hemolytic anemia
  • CThrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
  • DToxic shock syndrome
  • Evon Willebrand disease

How the community answered

(33 responses)
  • A
    6% (2)
  • B
    3% (1)
  • C
    76% (25)
  • D
    15% (5)

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