nerdexam
Test_Prep

USMLE · Question #481

USMLE Question #481: Real Exam Question with Answer & Explanation

Sign in or unlock USMLE to reveal the answer and full explanation for question #481. The question stem and answer options stay visible for context.

Question

A 63-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 4-day history of increasingly severe left leg pain and swelling of his left calf. He also has a 1-month history of increasingly severe upper midthoracic back pain. During this time, he has had a 9-kg (20-lb) weight loss despite no change in appetite. He has no history of major medical illness. His only medication is ibuprofen. He is 180 cm (5ft11in) tall and weighs 82 kg (180lb); BMI is 25 kg/m. His vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, lower extremity pulses are palpable bilaterally. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. An x-ray of the thoracic spine shows no abnormalities. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a 3-cm mass in the body of the pancreas; there are liver metastases and encasement of the superior mesenteric artery. Ultrasonography of the left lower extremity shows a femoropopliteal venous clot. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

Options

  • ACarcinoid syndrome
  • BHypercoagulability from advanced malignancy
  • CMultiple endocrine neoplasia
  • DSplemic artery aneurysm and embolic disease of the left lower extremity
  • ESuperior mesentric artery syndrome

Unlock USMLE to see the answer

You've previewed enough free USMLE questions. Unlock USMLE for full answers, explanations, the timed quiz mode, progress tracking, and the master PDF. Question stem and options stay visible so you can still see what's on the exam.

Full USMLE Practice