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USMLE · Question #576

A 53-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of intermittent blood in his stool. He has had no pain with defecation. Physical examination shows a 1-cm, visible anal mass…

The correct answer is D. Superficial inguinal. See the full explanation below for the reasoning.

Question

A 53-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of intermittent blood in his stool. He has had no pain with defecation. Physical examination shows a 1-cm, visible anal mass located below the dentate line. A biopsy of the mass is scheduled. If the mass if found to be malignant, it is most appropriate to evaluate which of the following lymph nodes for possible metastasis?

Options

  • AInternal iliac
  • BPopliteal
  • CSacral
  • DSuperficial inguinal
  • ESuperior rectal

How the community answered

(49 responses)
  • A
    6% (3)
  • B
    12% (6)
  • C
    2% (1)
  • D
    78% (38)
  • E
    2% (1)

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