Test_Prep
USMLE · Question #576
A 53-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of intermittent blood in his stool. He has had no pain with defecation. Physical examination shows a 1-cm, visible anal mass…
The correct answer is D. Superficial inguinal. See the full explanation below for the reasoning.
Question
A 53-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of intermittent blood in his stool. He has had no pain with defecation. Physical examination shows a 1-cm, visible anal mass located below the dentate line. A biopsy of the mass is scheduled. If the mass if found to be malignant, it is most appropriate to evaluate which of the following lymph nodes for possible metastasis?
Options
- AInternal iliac
- BPopliteal
- CSacral
- DSuperficial inguinal
- ESuperior rectal
How the community answered
(49 responses)- A6% (3)
- B12% (6)
- C2% (1)
- D78% (38)
- E2% (1)
Community Discussion
No community discussion yet for this question.