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USMLE · Question #573

A 31-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of malaise, nausea, vomiting, and decreased appetite. She is a known user of intravenous heroin. She appears chronically ill. She

The correct answer is C. Lifelong persistent infection. See the full explanation below for the reasoning.

Question

A 31-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of malaise, nausea, vomiting, and decreased appetite. She is a known user of intravenous heroin. She appears chronically ill. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 47kg (103 lb); BMI is 17 kg/m2. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 114/68 mmHg. Physical examination shows scleral icterus and a liver span of 16 cm. The spleen is not palpable. Serum studies show:

Which of the following is the most likely outcome of this patient's infection?

Exhibit

USMLE question #573 exhibit

Options

  • AComplete resolution of infection
  • BLatent infection with intermittent viremia
  • CLifelong persistent infection
  • DPatient death from acute infection

How the community answered

(35 responses)
  • A
    9% (3)
  • B
    6% (2)
  • C
    83% (29)
  • D
    3% (1)

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