Test_Prep
USMLE · Question #555
A 46-year-old woman with active ankylosing spondylitis comes to the office for a follow-up examination. The use of various conventional nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugs has been ineffective…
The correct answer is F. Tumor necrosis factor. See the full explanation below for the reasoning.
Question
A 46-year-old woman with active ankylosing spondylitis comes to the office for a follow-up examination. The use of various conventional nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugs has been ineffective. Sulfasalazine treatment also has not resulted in improvement. The most appropriate next step in treatment is administration of a drug that inhibits which of the following?
Options
- ACD
- BCyclooxygenase-2
- CCytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen 4
- DEpidermal growth factor
- Enterleukin-1 (IL-1)
- FTumor necrosis factor
How the community answered
(42 responses)- A7% (3)
- B5% (2)
- D12% (5)
- E2% (1)
- F74% (31)
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