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USMLE · Question #555
USMLE Question #555: Real Exam Question with Answer & Explanation
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Question
A 46-year-old woman with active ankylosing spondylitis comes to the office for a follow-up examination. The use of various conventional nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drugs has been ineffective. Sulfasalazine treatment also has not resulted in improvement. The most appropriate next step in treatment is administration of a drug that inhibits which of the following?
Options
- ACD
- BCyclooxygenase-2
- CCytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen 4
- DEpidermal growth factor
- Enterleukin-1 (IL-1)
- FTumor necrosis factor
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