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USMLE · Question #526

USMLE Question #526: Real Exam Question with Answer & Explanation

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Question

A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of recurrent, widespread blister formation. Physical examination shows lesions that are most numerous in the flexural areas including the axillae and groin. The blisters do not break easily, and there are no oral lesions. These blisters are most likely the result of adhesion failure involving which of the following?

Options

  • ABasement membrane
  • BDermal papillae
  • CLangerhans cells
  • DMelanocytes
  • EMerkel cells

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A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-week... | USMLE Q#526 Answer | NerdExam