nerdexam
Test_Prep

USMLE · Question #526

A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of recurrent, widespread blister formation. Physical examination shows lesions that are most numerous in the flexural areas…

The correct answer is A. Basement membrane. See the full explanation below for the reasoning.

Question

A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of recurrent, widespread blister formation. Physical examination shows lesions that are most numerous in the flexural areas including the axillae and groin. The blisters do not break easily, and there are no oral lesions. These blisters are most likely the result of adhesion failure involving which of the following?

Options

  • ABasement membrane
  • BDermal papillae
  • CLangerhans cells
  • DMelanocytes
  • EMerkel cells

How the community answered

(45 responses)
  • A
    80% (36)
  • B
    2% (1)
  • C
    2% (1)
  • D
    4% (2)
  • E
    11% (5)

Community Discussion

No community discussion yet for this question.

Full USMLE Practice