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USMLE · Question #500

A 17-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother because she has not had a menstrual period for 6 months. The patient is unconcerned about the lack of menses. Menarche occurred at the…

The correct answer is B. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. See the full explanation below for the reasoning.

Question

A 17-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother because she has not had a menstrual period for 6 months. The patient is unconcerned about the lack of menses. Menarche occurred at the age of 12 years, and menses had occurred at regular 28-day intervals until they became irregular 1 year ago. She is a member of her high school gymnastics team. She appears emaciated. She is 163 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 40 kg (88 lb); BMI is 15 kg/m. Her pulse is 54/min, and blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's amenorrhea?

Options

  • AHyperthyroidism
  • BHypogonadotropic hypogonadism
  • CHypothyroidism
  • DPolycystic ovarian syndrome
  • EProlactinoma

How the community answered

(36 responses)
  • A
    6% (2)
  • B
    75% (27)
  • C
    3% (1)
  • D
    3% (1)
  • E
    14% (5)

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