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USMLE · Question #453
USMLE Question #453: Real Exam Question with Answer & Explanation
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Question
A 68-year-old man sustains a myocardial infarct resulting from thrombotic occlusion at the origin of the left circumflex artery. Cardiac catheterization demonstrates that the patient has a left dominant coronary circulation. In which of the following areas of the heart has ischemic necrosis most likely occurred?
Options
- AApex of left ventricle and anterior portion of septum
- BLateral left ventricular wall and posterior portion of the septum
- CLateral wall of the left ventricle only
- DPosterior portion of the septum only
- ERight ventricular wall
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