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PMI-RMP · Question #417

PMI-RMP Question #417: Real Exam Question with Answer & Explanation

The correct answer is A: Risk 1. See the full explanation below for the reasoning.

Perform Targeted Risk Analysis

Question

The risk manager is prioritizing risks based on the potential impact to cost and schedule and identifies the following 4 risks: Risk 1 has a US$500,000 potential cost increase, and a 60 day potential schedule slippage, with a 25% probability of occurring Risk 2 has a US$200,000 potential cost increase, and a 20 day potential schedule slippage, with a 60% probability of occurring Risk 3 has a US$1,200,000 potential cost increase, and a 90 day potential schedule slippage, with a 10% probability of occurring Risk 4 has @ US$600,000 potential cost increase, and a 70 day potential schedule slippage, with a 20% probability of occurring Using expected monetary value calculation, which risk has the greatest potential impact to cost and schedule?

Options

  • ARisk 1
  • BRisk 2
  • CRisk 3
  • DRisk 4

Topics

#Expected Monetary Value (EMV)#Quantitative Risk Analysis#Risk Prioritization#Cost-Benefit Analysis

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