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CGEIT · Question #497
CGEIT Question #497: Real Exam Question with Answer & Explanation
The correct answer is A: Organizational responsibility for IT risk management is not clearly defined.. The most significant concern for a CIO regarding a two-year-old IT risk management program is the lack of clearly defined organizational responsibilities.
Submitted by omar99· Apr 18, 2026Governance of Enterprise IT
Question
An internal auditor conducts an assessment of a two-year-old IT risk management program. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the CIO?
Options
- AOrganizational responsibility for IT risk management is not clearly defined.
- BNone of the members of the IT risk management team have risk management-related
- COnly a few key risk indicators (KRIs) identified by the IT risk management team are being
- DIT risk training records are not properly retained in accordance with established schedules
Explanation
The most significant concern for a CIO regarding a two-year-old IT risk management program is the lack of clearly defined organizational responsibilities.
Common mistakes.
- B. While desirable, a lack of specific risk management certifications among team members is a training gap, not a foundational structural issue with the program's governance.
- C. Few key risk indicators (KRIs) being used indicates an issue with monitoring and measurement, which is less critical than the fundamental lack of responsibility for the entire program.
- D. Improper retention of IT risk training records is a compliance and documentation issue, which is less impactful than a lack of clear responsibility for the risk management program itself.
Concept tested. IT risk management program governance
Topics
#IT Risk Management#Governance#Accountability#Organizational Structure
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