200-301 Exam Questions

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two.)

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)

Which type of ipv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as ipv4 public addresses?

A corporate office uses four floors in a building. - Floor 1 has 24 users. - Floor 2 has 29 users. - Floor 3 has 28 users. - Floor 4 has 22 users. Which subnet summarizes and gives...

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign...

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2, while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomp...

Which two command sequences must be configured on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a...

Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two.)

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services, and access control?

What is difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destinatio...

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

Refer to the exhibit. A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources. Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)

Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFV2 to operate? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two.)

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Whic...

Refer to the exhibit. What configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic? A. B. C. D.

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Wh...

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored as a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also suppor...

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?

Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of attack that they mitigate on the right. Answer:

Drag and Drop Question Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right. Answer: