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NCLEX-RN · Question #748

A 3-year-old female client is brought into the pediatric clinic because she limps. She has not been to the clinic since she was 9 months old. The nurse practitioner describes the limp as a…

The correct answer is B. Dislocated hip. (A, C, D) A Trendelenburg gait is not characteristic of any of these disorders. (B) The downward slant of one hip is a positive sign of dislocation in the weight-bearing hip. If one hip is dislocated, the child walks with a characteristic limp known as the Trendelenburg gait.

Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation

Question

A 3-year-old female client is brought into the pediatric clinic because she limps. She has not been to the clinic since she was 9 months old. The nurse practitioner describes the limp as a "Trendelenburg gait." This gait is characteristic of:

Options

  • AScoliosis
  • BDislocated hip
  • CFractured femur
  • DFractured pelvis

How the community answered

(19 responses)
  • A
    5% (1)
  • B
    89% (17)
  • C
    5% (1)

Explanation

(A, C, D) A Trendelenburg gait is not characteristic of any of these disorders. (B) The downward slant of one hip is a positive sign of dislocation in the weight-bearing hip. If one hip is dislocated, the child walks with a characteristic limp known as the Trendelenburg gait.

Topics

#Trendelenburg gait#developmental hip dysplasia#musculoskeletal assessment#pediatric orthopedics

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