NCLEX-RN · Question #748
A 3-year-old female client is brought into the pediatric clinic because she limps. She has not been to the clinic since she was 9 months old. The nurse practitioner describes the limp as a…
The correct answer is B. Dislocated hip. (A, C, D) A Trendelenburg gait is not characteristic of any of these disorders. (B) The downward slant of one hip is a positive sign of dislocation in the weight-bearing hip. If one hip is dislocated, the child walks with a characteristic limp known as the Trendelenburg gait.
Question
A 3-year-old female client is brought into the pediatric clinic because she limps. She has not been to the clinic since she was 9 months old. The nurse practitioner describes the limp as a "Trendelenburg gait." This gait is characteristic of:
Options
- AScoliosis
- BDislocated hip
- CFractured femur
- DFractured pelvis
How the community answered
(19 responses)- A5% (1)
- B89% (17)
- C5% (1)
Explanation
(A, C, D) A Trendelenburg gait is not characteristic of any of these disorders. (B) The downward slant of one hip is a positive sign of dislocation in the weight-bearing hip. If one hip is dislocated, the child walks with a characteristic limp known as the Trendelenburg gait.
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