156-215.81 Exam Questions

After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?

Name the utility that is used to block activities that appear to be suspicious.

When URL Filtering is set, what identifying data gets sent to the Check Point Online Web Service?

Name the pre-defined Roles included in Gaia OS.

Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?

Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?

Log query results can be exported to what file format?

There are four policy types available for each policy package. What are those policy types?

Which tool allows for the automatic updating of the Gaia OS and Check Point products installed on the Gaia OS?

The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server and the Check Point gateways. Which statement best describes...

What are the types of Software Containers?

Stateful Inspection compiles and registers connections where?

Security Zones do no work with what type of defined rule?

Most Check Point deployments use Gaia but which product deployment utilizes special Check Point code (with unification in R81.10)?

URL Filtering cannot be used to:

Which SmartConsole application shows correlated logs and aggregated data to provide an overview of potential threats and attack patterns?

Which of the following is used to extract state related information from packets and store that information in state tables?

Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit delete, and clone objects?

How do logs change when the "Accounting" tracking option is enabled on a traffic rule?

Which of these is NOT a feature or benefit of Application Control?

Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security. Considering stateful Inspections and Proxies, which statement is c...

What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?

What are the three deployment options available for a security gateway?

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the network, and instructed you to block it. Corporate policy dictates that firewall policy c...

What command from the CLI would be used to view current licensing?

In a Distributed deployment, the Security Gateway and the Security Management software are installed on what platforms?

To increase security, the administrator has modified the Core protection 'Host Port Scan' from 'Medium' to 'High' Predefined Sensitivity. Which Policy should the administrator inst...

When changes are made to a Rule base, it is important to _______________ to enforce changes.

The Online Activation method is available for Check Point manufactured appliances. How does the administrator use the Online Activation method?

Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However, one offers more flexibility. Which statement is true?

When dealing with rule base layers, what two layer types can be utilized?

Application Control/URL filtering database library is known as:

What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?

A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container. There are ______ types of Software Containers: ________.

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n) ___________ Server.

What is the default tracking option of a rule?

When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

When a SAM rule is required on Security Gateway to quickly block suspicious connections which are not restricted by the Security Policy, what actions does the administrator need to...

To provide updated malicious data signatures to all Threat Prevention blades, the Threat Prevention gateway does what with the data?

The Gateway Status view in SmartConsole shows the overall status of Security Gateways and Software Blades. What does the Status Attention mean?

In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, what action must an administrator perform?

What is the main objective when using Application Control?